Chi Square and Coorelation Analysis?

What are similarities between a chi square analysis and a coorelation analysis? Suppose you conducted a study to see of there was an association between political party affiliation and whether or not someone voted. What type of analysis would you use and why?

ANSWER: Chi-square isn’t similar to a coorelation analysis in the least. The type of analysis you need for studying "association" is coorelation analysis to determine the relationship between the two variables of party and voting frequency.

how did the Scot’s become a celtic nation? The biological and historical connection the Scots have with Celtic populations is equal to that of the English. The Scots language is a West Germanic language that has no connection to any Celtic language and has a very strong connection with old English, Norwegian, and other extinct West Germanic languages. The Scots language is descended from the language of the Angles who settled in northern Britain, in an area now known as North Umbria in the 5th century AD. The term “Scot” which refers to the Scottish people did not exist in “Scotland” until the late 4th century, comes from the Irish Gaelic word “Scottie”. The “Scottie” was an Irish tribe that settled in what would be the highlands of Scotland around that time. This Irish tribe in the north of the country was culturally, biologically, and linguistically completely different from the “Scots” of the lowlands. The people of the highlands of Scotland have always been a minority with the exception of the 9th-11th centuries when the highlander clans obtained dominants over the lowlands and the nationalized language of the military and courts was for a relatively brief period Gaelic. I am not arguing whether or not the Scots blended or assimilated into a Germanic Anglo-Saxon culture. All cultures and ethnic groups are never completely homogeneous. I am simply stating the fact that the Scots are primarily a Germanic people and not a Celtic people. Unlike the Irish, welsh, Cornish, or Bretons which are or once were legitimate Celtic populations prior to the Germanic invasions. This is not meant to be an attack on Scottish identity. I am just stating historical facts. Celtic populations existed all over Europe. The Celts were among the last of the mass nomadic populations of Europe. The Balkans, Asia minor, and the Iberian peninsula all used to have very large Celtic populations. I am not trying to change history. The affiliations and associations have already been established. In my personal opinion the only reason Scots took on a Celtic identity was for alliance purposes. To deter to crown of England from Scotland and to secure national sovereignty and create strong allies. This strategy ultimately failed. I liken this to all the tens of millions of Berbers of north Africa that call themselves Arabs when the Berbers are not even remotely related to Semitic peoples.

i’m not scottish, but i know enough to tell you that lowland scots and highland scots have very different cultures,historically speakin. ur right in sayin that lowland scots is a germanic language and the people are probably more germanic too,probably due to their proximy to england. highland scots on the other hand are much more celtic and gaelic. gaidhlig or scots gaelic is a celtic language descended from old irish. this is because irish people set up a kingdom in north western scotland known as the dal riada. these people either absorbed or dislaced the native picts hence the gaelic culture that we find in highland scotland today.